What is the Difference Between Logos and Rhema?


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  1. THE FACT THAT THE EXALTED CHRIST HAS A GOD IN HEAVEN INDICATES THAT HE IS NOT IQUAL TO THE FATHER AS THE ALMIGHTY. APOCALYPSE 3: 12
    1) Everyone who has a God is because that God is more powerful than themselves.

    2) Everyone who has a God is because is worshiping that God.

    How is Christ going to be the only God and will have a God to worship? John 20:17 (note that here he is in the flesh as a limited human but in the following text it is already stated at the most in heavenly glory )

    In Revelation 3: 12, Christ says the same name four times, there is no text in the Bible to remember the word God appears 4 times in the same verse. Note also that Revelation 3: 12 tells us that he receives a new name. What new name can Almighty God receive? What can be new for God? Revelation 2: 17; In 15: 2-3 the Lamb has a song for his God to worship him.

    The Father is the God of Christ, but the Father has no God, so He has no superior, the Father is the only Highest. The only way the Father is the God of Christ in heaven is if Christ is inferior to the Father and is different from the Father.

    1 CORINTHIANS 15: 28-29

    THE FATHER IS ONE AND JESUS ANOTHER ONE

    Here the word God in verse 28 applies to the Son or the Father? Definitely to the Father, and he is telling us that the only God that will be GOD ALL IN ALL at the end, is the Father

    The father will play a role of Sovereign superiority over Christ and above all things and this is confirmed in Apocalypse 3: 12 where Christ declares that he also has a God whom he will worship, his God gives him a new name if Christ is the all-powerful God, whose name can be new to him, we will also receive a new name from our God as Christ received it from his God Apocalypse 2: 17

    sovereign glory is reserved only for the sovereign God the Father, Christ does not receive sovereign glory because he is not sovereign, because the father is superior, the same Christ said that the Father is greater than him and will continue to be greater for eternity according this verse. John 14: 28

    Why does Paul make it clear that whoever subjects him to all things is not included in the subject of all things to Christ? Paul is making it clear that the Father is not subject to Christ or anything because he is the only Sovereign God, and this confirms it in verse 28 when he says that the Son himself after all ends will have to be subject as all and like all things to the Father so that the Father may be GOD ALL IN ALL.

    The theme is a subject of subjection and government, now the Father does not govern in all its fullness because he has put the Son to govern and subject all things but when the Son has finished everything will deliver the Kingdom to his God and Father so that God be everything in all governing directly and totally; in this way God will exercise all government, power and glory as the sole Sovereign of the Heavens for eternity. 1 Corinthians 15:24

    Paul says that even the Son himself is to hold himself together with all things to the Father so that the Father BE EVERYTHING IN EVERYONE; SO THAT THE FATHER WILL BE EVERYTHING IN EVERYBODY, BUT THE SON WILL NOT BE EVERYTHING IN ALL, this is a Glory that only the Father will enjoy, this puts the Father in superiority and sovereignty over the Son.

    Sovereignty is one of the attributes of the one God, only the Father is Sovereign, Christ does not possess this attribute of the one True God; The declaration of Christ in John 14:28 that the Father is grater than I, this statement was true,it is true and will continue to be true. THE FATHER WILL CONTINUE BEING GREATER THAN HIM FOR ALL ETERNITY. 1 Corinthians 11: 3; 15: 27.28

    1 Corinthians 15:27-28 Amplified Bible (AMP)

    27 For HE (the Father) HAS PUT ALL THINGS IN SUBJECTION UNDER HIS (Christ’s) FEET. But when He says, “All things have been put in subjection [under Christ],” it is clear that He (the Father) who put all things in subjection to Him (Christ) is excepted [since the Father is not in subjection to His own Son]. 28 However, when all things are subjected to Him (Christ), then the Son Himself will also be subjected to the One (the Father) who put all things under Him, so that God may be all in all [manifesting His glory without any opposition, the supreme indwelling and controlling factor of life].

    In these versions the difference between the person of the Father as the God of whom one speaks and the person of Christ becomes very clear.

    Christ himself said that the Father is greater than him, and will continue to be greater than him for eternity according to this verse 28.

    Oneness is confusion as the trinity is.

    The Word of Christ is not his but the Father's. Are two wills of two people ? John 17: 6-8,16; 14:24.

    THE FACT THAT THE EXALTED CHRIST HAS A GOD IN HEAVEN INDICATES THAT HE IS NOT IQUAL TO THE FATHER AS THE ALMIGHTY. APOCALYPSE 3: 12

    1) Everyone who has a God is because that God is more powerful than themselves.

    2) Everyone who has a God is because is worshiping that God.

    How is Christ going to be the only God and will have a God to worship? John 20:17 (note that here he is in the flesh as a limited human but in the following text he is already in heavenly glory )

    In Revelation 3: 12, Christ says the name God four times, there is no text in the Bible to remember the word God appears 4 times in the same verse. Notice also that Revelation 3: 12 tells us that he receives a new name. What new name can Almighty God receive? What can be new for God ? We are going to receive a new name as Christ also Revelation 2: 17.

    The Father is the God of Christ, but the Father has no God, so He has no superior, the Father is the only Highest God.

    The only way the Father is the God of Christ in heaven is if Christ is inferior to the Father and is different from the Father.

    The doctrine of oneness is as complicated as the doctrine of Trinity.

  2. I love and highly respect Dr. Brown. Amazing man of God for sure. I certainly don't bring the credentials he does but I don't agree with his comment on the difference between logos and rhema. Other then a few exceptions scripture was always referred to as scripture or "graphe" or "grapho" or even "gramma" in Greek. I am sure there are others but you get the point. You can clearly see in the context of scripture that both logos and rhema is used as a spoken word along with some additional meaning. Looking in the Blue Letter Bible here is a brief but not the entire definition behind logos.

    of speech

    a word, uttered by a living voice, embodies a conception or idea

    what someone has said

    a word

    the sayings of God

    decree, mandate or order

    of the moral precepts given by God

    Old Testament prophecy given by the prophets

    what is declared, a thought, declaration, aphorism, a weighty saying, a dictum, a maxim

    A good scripture to look at for this is John 15:3. "You are already clean because of the word which I have spoken to you."

    Jesus is speaking here and that "word" is logos and it clearly refers to speech in that scripture. Not scripture. Logos can also be the message but as some others have stated here it is also Jesus. John 1:1. In the beginning was the Word and the Word was with God and the Word was God. All those Words are logos and we know that is Jesus. There were no scriptures in the beginning before all things were made but God spoke everything into existence by His Word. Of course in Colossians 1 we know that all things were created by Him, for Him and through Him or Jesus.

    Here is the definition in the Blue Letter Bible for Rhema. Very similar to logos.

    that which is or has been uttered by the living voice, thing spoken, word

    any sound produced by the voice and having definite meaning

    speech, discourse

    what one has said

    a series of words joined together into a sentence (a declaration of one's mind made in words)

    an utterance

    a saying of any sort as a message, a narrative

    concerning some occurrence

    subject matter of speech, thing spoken of

    so far forth as it is a matter of narration

    so far as it is a matter of command

    a matter of dispute, case at law

    Here is a good scripture for Rhema. John 15:7 – “If you abide in Me, and My words abide in you, ask whatever you wish, and it will be done for you.

    My understanding for most of my Christian walk was to look at scripture like this and think that abiding in Christ and His words abiding in me meant memorizing scriptures, going to Bible studies, going to church, doing missions work and being a good volunteer at church. However, once I saw the true meaning of what was being said it changed everything. Jesus said the sheep will hear the Masters voice and to be led by the Spirit you have to hear Holy Spirit talking to you and He is talking a lot. In the scripture above Christ is not telling us that if His "scriptures" abide in us. If it did the word would not be rhema but it would be graphe or grapho or gramma. What He is saying is that when He speaks to you and you hear Him followed by obeying what He says you are abiding. It is referring to an intimacy/relationship with Him that goes to a depth that cannot be achieved by simply studying scripture. You can know a lot about God but knowing God is something that only comes by a back and forth relationship. He speaks, you listen and obey. You ask, He answers, etc.

    Someone stated in here the scripture in John 5:39. Jesus is slamming the Pharisees and saying that you dilgently study the sciptures (graphe) thinking you will have eternal life by them but it is these that testify about me. The Pharisees had their eyes glued to the scriptures but they could not see Jesus right in front of them that the scriptures all talk about. They knew about God but didn't know Him. Below John 15:7 is another scripture that beautifully brings together my point to the difference between scripture and a spoken word. It is John 5:47

    "But if you do not believe his writings, how will you believe My words?”

    Jesus is referring to the writings of Moses (Torah) followed by referring to His own words. His own words had yet to be put into scripture so it cannot be scripture. The Greek word for writings is "gramma" and the greek word for "words" in this scripture is rhema. So Christ is making a point as to the difference between what is scripture and what He is telling His audience in real time. What is even funnier is that Jesus(logos) is giving rhema.

    I certainly don't say this to create division but it is an invitation. I encourage everyone to start looking at the scriptures that are referring to God's word and look up the Greek. Then look at the meaning of that scripture by not thinking of the Bible or scripture but God speaking to you or bringing revelation. It really brings a whole new deeper level of meaning. Even Paul said that he will go on to revelations and visions from the Lord in 2 Corinthians 12:1. I love Holy scriptures and am in them every day but it is revelation from the Lord that brings understanding of the scriptures. Be Blessed.

  3. i had always thought "Logos" meant written word and "Rhema" meant spoken word…but Dr Brown made it clear this is a mistranslation..very interesting…one must be careful how easy it is to bring presuppostion to new facts that are presented to us

  4. 2:02 I'd like to disagree. Not interchangeable. They may both speak of "The written word, and communication in other forms." On the surface could mean the same thing. But clearly Logos has a broader meaning.
    https://www.biblestudytools.com/lexicons/greek/kjv/rhema.html
    https://www.biblestudytools.com/lexicons/greek/kjv/logos.html
    The lexicon clearly shows almost 6X the use of the word "Logos" over "Rhema." 317>67

    Rhema is clearly defined in the lexicon as a matter of speech by word/discourse, declarations/spreading of messages/narratives or SUBJECT MATTER OF SPEECH with regard to narration/command/dispute.

    Where as Logos is speech by word/discourse, doctrine/teaching (spreading of messages), Edit: with regard to the MIND alone… thinking, meditating, reasoning, calculating, regard/consideration, reckoning/score, ANSWER/EXPLAINATION IN REFERENCE TO JUDGEMENT, RELATION/WITH WHOM AS JUDGE WE STAND IN RELATION, reason/cause/ground (Commands/disputes.) While similar, Logos cannot be properly boiled down to "Speech, thought or The Word."

  5. Wisdom can be considered as an attribute of God or as begotten of Him, depending on the context. God has perfect wisdom because he knows all causes, and so in this sense it is an attribute of Him. Wisdom is knowledge of causes. God is the uncaused cause, so the highest wisdom is knowledge of God. The Father knows Himself perfectly from all eternity and in order to accomplish that, He must have an "image" or idea of Himself. God contemplates Himself and the Son is that “image.” So even if nothing else existed but God, he would still have knowledge of himself; the Logos,, the Second Person of the Holy Trinity.

  6. But what about the Greek and Hebrew words for Wisdom? Wouldn’t the books of Proverbs, and Sirach be referred to the Pre-Incarnate Word of God, when they mention how Wisdom existed before the Creation of the World?

  7. Why did Jesus only call himself LOGOS and not RHEMA however? and has it written upon himself in revelations? Shouldn't there be a distinction that God wants to make when he uses specific words? We may not be able to know exactly the distinction but is it not safe to assume God makes distinction in the new testament for a reason?

  8. @Liberty and Justice. Also I would add that in the verse you provided it does not say that The Word of God is not in the Scriptures but Jesus is saying that the Scriptures themselves point/testify to the Author of Life.

  9. This is where I don't agree with many Christians today who continue to claim the bible / scriptures is "the word of God" because the scriptures themselves do not claim this. The scriptures bear witness to the word of God, but are not unto themselves "the word of God". Jesus Himself made this clear distinction between "scriptures" and "word of God" in John 5:37-40 — "And the Father who sent Me has Himself testified concerning Me. You have never heard His voice nor seen His form, nor does His Word dwell in you, for you do not believe the One He sent. You study the scriptures diligently because you think that in them you have eternal life. These are the very scriptures that testify about Me, yet you refuse to come to Me to have Life."

    So Jesus said that the Fathers' Word does not dwell IN them. That means Jesus is speaking of Gods Word as Spirit (not written text). Then Jesus says that these people study the scriptures for in the scriptures these people [erroneously] believe they have eternal life, when scriptures are simply dead wood with ink, not life; the ink formed into text on that wood does bear witness to Jesus, though they refuse to come to Jesus (Who is the spoken Word of God in visual form) for eternal Life.

    Any time you see the scriptures write "word," it means spoken. The scriptures only ever mean written text on wood when they write about scriptures.
    The bible is scripture (tree wood + ink), and it's not alive.

    Paul says, in Hebrews 4:12"For the Word of God is quick, and powerful, and sharper than any twoedged sword, piercing even to the dividing asunder of soul and spirit, and of the joints and marrow, and is a discerner of the thoughts and intents of the heart."

    Dead tree paper + ink cannot discern thoughts or intent of the heart! It cannot pierce and divide the soul and spirit, joints and marrow, etc.!

    Ephesians 6:17 — "And take the helmet of salvation, and the sword of the Spirit, which is the word of God …"

    Jesus had a Sword (remember Hebrews 4:12 – "sharper than a twoedged sword") coming out of His mouth when John saw Him coming down to smite the nations in Armageddon, seen in the book of Revelation (19:15).

    Revelation 19:15 — "And out of His mouth goeth a sharp sword, that with it He should smite the nations: and He shall rule them with a rod of iron: and He treadeth the winepress of the fierceness and wrath of Almighty God."

    Paul says in 2 Thessalonians 2:8 — "And then shall that wicked be revealed, whom the Lord shall consume with the Spirit of His mouth, and shall destroy with the brightness of his coming:"

    The Word of God is Gods' Holy Spirit coming out of His mouth, and Jesus is the visible manifestation of the invisible Word of God, thus why John calls Jesus "The Word of God" multiple times in his books: John 1:1, John 1:14, Revelation 19:13, etc.

    Paul differentiates between "word" (spoken) and "epistle" (letter – written) in 2 Thessalonians 2:15 — "Therefore, brethren, stand fast, and hold the traditions which ye have been taught, whether by word, or our epistle."

    The scriptures testify of the Word of God, no different than me hearing from the Lord directly speak to me and then walking up to you and telling you about what He told me. This does not mean that I am the "word of God," but that I testify of the word of God.